30 Jan Question 2Which structure is located in

NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 2 Quiz

Question 1The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing staff on the epidermal layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The epidermis is:

Answers:

a. Highly vascular.

b. Thick and tough.

c. Thin and nonstratified.

d. Replaced every 4 weeks.

Question 2The nurse educator is preparing an education module for the nursing staff on the dermis layer of skin. Which of these statements would be included in the module? The dermis:

Answers:

a. Contains mostly fat cells.

b. Consists mostly of keratin.

c. Is replaced every 4 weeks.

d. Contains sensory receptors.

Question 3The nurse is examining a patient who tells the nurse, “I sure sweat a lot, especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have an odor.” The nurse knows that this condition could be related to:

Answers:

a. Eccrine glands.

b. Apocrine glands.

c. Disorder of the stratum corneum.

d. Disorder of the stratum germinativum.

Question 4A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby checkup. The nurse observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss because of which of these factors?

Answers:

a. Subcutaneous fat deposits are high in the newborn.

b. Sebaceous glands are overproductive in the newborn.

c. The newborn’s skin is more permeable than that of the adult.

d. The amount of vernixcaseosa dramatically rises in the newborn.

Question 5The nurse is aware that the four areas in the body where lymph nodes are accessible are the:

Answers:

a. Head, breasts, groin, and abdomen.

b. Arms, breasts, inguinal area, and legs.

c. Head and neck, arms, breasts, and axillae.

d. Head and neck, arms, inguinal area, and axillae.

Question 6A patient’s thyroid gland is enlarged, and the nurse is preparing to auscultate the thyroid gland for the presence of a bruit. A bruit is a __________ sound that is heard best with the __________ of the stethoscope.

Answers:

a. Low gurgling; diaphragm

b. Loud, whooshing, blowing; bell

c. Soft, whooshing, pulsatile; bell

d. High-pitched tinkling; diaphragm

Question 7The nurse is testing a patient’s visual accommodation, which refers to which action?

Answers:

a. Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object

b. Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object

c. Changes in peripheral vision in response to light

d. Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light

Question 8A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes that this reflex indicates that:

Answers:

a. The eyes converge to focus on the light.

b. Light is reflected at the same spot in both eyes.

c. The eye focuses the image in the center of the pupil.

d. Constriction of both pupils occurs in response to bright light.

Question 9A mother asks when her newborn infant’s eyesight will be developed. The nurse should reply:

Answers:

a. “Vision is not totally developed until 2 years of age.”

b. “Infants develop the ability to focus on an object at approximately 8 months of age.”

c. “By approximately 3 months of age, infants develop more coordinated eye movements and can fixate on an object.”

d. “Most infants have uncoordinated eye movements for the first year of life.”

Question 10The nurse is reviewing in age-related changes in the eye for a class. Which of these physiologic changes is responsible for presbyopia?

Answers:

a. Degeneration of the cornea

b. Loss of lens elasticity

c. Decreased adaptation to darkness

d. Decreased distance vision abilities

Question 11Which of these assessment findings would the nurse expect to see when examining the eyes of a black patient?

Answers:

a. Increased night vision

b. Dark retinal background

c. Increased photosensitivity

d. Narrowed palpebral fissures

Question 12When performing an otoscopic examination of a 5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in color and that air bubbles are visible behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this information is that the child:

Answers:

a. Most likely has serous otitis media.

b. Has an acute purulent otitis media.

c. Has evidence of a resolving cholesteatoma.

d. Is experiencing the early stages of perforation.

Question 13The nurse needs to pull the portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin down and back when administering eardrops. This portion of the ear is called the:

Answers:

a. Auricle.

b. Concha.

c. Outer meatus.

d. Mastoid process.

Question 14The nurse is examining a patient’s ears and notices cerumen in the external canal. Which of these statements about cerumenis ?

Answers:

a. Sticky honey-colored cerumen is a sign of infection.

b. The presence of cerumen is indicative of poor hygiene.

c. The purpose of cerumen is to protect and lubricate the ear.

d. Cerumen is necessary for transmitting sound through the auditory canal.

Question 15When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse notes that the tympanic membrane should appear:

Answers:

a. Light pink with a slight bulge.

b. Pearly gray and slightly concave.

c. Pulled in at the base of the cone of light.

d. Whitish with a small fleck of light in the superior portion.

Question 16The nurse is reviewing the structures of the ear. Which of these statements concerning the eustachian tube is true?

Answers:

a. The eustachian tube is responsible for the production of cerumen.

b. It remains open except when swallowing or yawning.

c. The eustachian tube allows passage of air between the middle and outer ear.

d. It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.

Question 17A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse, “What does the middle ear do?” The nurse responds by telling the patient that the middle ear functions to:

Answers:

a. Maintain balance.

b. Interpret sounds as they enter the ear.

c. Conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear.

d. Increase amplitude of sound for the inner ear to function.

Question 18The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:

Answers:

a. Warm the inhaled air.

b. Filter out dust and bacteria.

c. Filter coarse particles from inhaled air.

d. Facilitate the movement of air through the nares.

Question 19The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:

Answers:

a. Meatus.

b. Septum.

c. Turbinates.

d. Kiesselbach plexus.

Question 20The nurse is reviewing the development of the newborn infant. Regarding the sinuses, which statement is true in relation to a newborn infant?

Answers:

a. Sphenoid sinuses are full size at birth.

b. Maxillary sinuses reach full size after puberty.

c. Frontal sinuses are fairly well developed at birth.

d. Maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only sinuses present at birth.

Question 21The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth is the:

Answers:

a. Uvula.

b. Palate.

c. Papillae.

d. Frenulum.

Question 22The salivary gland that is the largest and located in the cheek in front of the ear is the _________ gland.

Answers:

a.Parotid

b. Stensen’s

c. Sublingual

d. Submandibular

Question 23In assessing the tonsils of a 30 year old, the nurse notices that they are involuted, granular in appearance, and appear to have deep crypts. What is response to these findings?

Answers:

a. Refer the patient to a throat specialist.

b. No response is needed; this appearance is normal for the tonsils.

c. Continue with the assessment, looking for any other abnormal findings.

d. Obtain a throat culture on the patient for possible streptococcal (strep) infection.

Question 24The nurse is obtaining a health history on a 3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states, “I think she is getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot.” The nurse’s best response would be:

Answers:

a. “You’re right, drooling is usually a sign of the first tooth.”

b. “It would be unusual for a 3 month old to be getting her first tooth.”

c. “This could be the sign of a problem with the salivary glands.”

d. “She is just starting to salivate and hasn’t learned to swallow the saliva.”

Question 25The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient. Which of these findings would be expected for this patient?

Answers:

a. Hypertrophy of the gums

b. Increased production of saliva

c. Decreased ability to identify odors

d. Finer and less prominent nasa

NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 3 Quiz

Question 1When performing a respiratory assessment on a patient, the nurse notices a costal angle of approximately 90 degrees. This characteristic is:

Answers:

a. Observed in patients with kyphosis.

b. Indicative of pectusexcavatum.

c. A normal finding in a healthy adult.

d. An expected finding in a patient with a barrel chest.

Question 2When assessing a patient’s lungs, the nurse recalls that the left lung:

Answers:

a. Consists of two lobes.

b. Is divided by the horizontal fissure.

c. Primarily consists of an upper lobe on the posterior chest.

d. Is shorter than the right lung because of the underlying stomach.

Question 3The nurse is observing the auscultation technique of another nurse. The method to use when progressing from one auscultatory site on the thorax to another is _______ comparison.

Answers:

a. Side-to-side

b. Top-to-bottom

c. Posterior-to-anterior

d. Interspace-by-interspace

Question 4When auscultating the lungs of an adult patient, the nurse notes that low-pitched, soft breath sounds are heard over the posterior lower lobes, with inspiration being longer than expiration. The nurse interprets that these sounds are:

Answers:

a. Normally auscultated over the trachea.

b. Bronchial breath sounds and normal in that location.

c. Vesicular breath sounds and normal in that location.

d. Bronchovesicularbreath sounds and normal in that location.

Question 5The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of these?

Answers:

a. Vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → pulmonary artery → left atrium → left ventricle

b. Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle

c. Aorta → right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → vena cava

d. Right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein → lungs → pulmonary artery → left atrium → left ventricle

Question 6A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical examination. During the recording of his health history, the patient states that he has been having difficulty sleeping. “I’ll be sleeping great, and then I wake up and feel like I can’t get my breath.” The nurse’s best response to this would be:

Answers:

a. “When was your last electrocardiogram?”

b. “It’s probably because it’s been so hot at night.”

c. “Do you have any history of problems with your heart?”

d. “Have you had a recent sinus infection or upper respiratory infection?”

Question 7In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease, which would the nurse want to include when taking a history?

Answers:

a. Family history, hypertension, stress, and age

b. Personality type, high cholesterol, diabetes, and smoking

c. Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol

d. Alcohol consumption, obesity, diabetes, stress, and high cholesterol

Question 8The mother of a 3-month-old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning, the nurse finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short time, hungry again. What other information would the nurse want to have?

Answers:

a. Infant’s sleeping position

b. Sibling history of eating disorders

c. Amount of background noise when eating

d. Presence of dyspnea or diaphoresis when sucking

Question 9In assessing the carotid arteries of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the nurse would:

Answers:

a. Palpate the artery in the upper one third of the neck.

b. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits.

c. Simultaneously palpate both arteries to compare amplitude.

d. Instruct the patient to take slow deep breaths during auscultation.

Question 10Which statement is true regarding the arterial system?

Answers:

a. Arteries are large-diameter vessels.

b. The arterial system is a high-pressure system.

c. The walls of arteries are thinner than those of the veins.

d. Arteries can greatly expand to accommodate a large blood volume increase.

Question 11The nurse is reviewing the blood supply to the arm. The major artery supplying the arm is the _____ artery.

Answers:

a. Ulnar

b. Radial

c. Brachial

d. Deep palmar

Question 12The nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalispedis artery. Where is the location for palpation?

Answers:

a. Behind the knee

b. Over the lateral malleolus

c. In the groove behind the medial malleolus

d. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe

Question 13The nurse is teaching a review class on the lymphatic system. A participant shows understanding of the material with which statement?

Answers:

a. “Lymph flow is propelled by the contraction of the heart.”

b. “The flow of lymph is slow, compared with that of the blood.”

c. “One of the functions of the lymph is to absorb lipids from the biliary tract.”

d. “Lymph vessels have no valves; therefore, lymph fluid flows freely from the tissue spaces into the bloodstream.”

Question 14When performing an assessment of a patient, the nurse notices the presence of an enlarged right epitrochlear lymph node. What should the nurse do next?

Answers:

a. Assess the patient’s abdomen, and notice any tenderness.

b. Carefully assess the cervical lymph nodes, and check for any enlargement.

c. Ask additional health history questions regarding any recent ear infections or sore throats.

d. Examine the patient’s lower arm and hand, and check for the presence of infection or lesions.

Question 15A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic for an infection in his left foot. Which of these findings should the nurse expect to see during an assessment of this patient?

Answers:

a. Hard and fixed cervical nodes

b. Enlarged and tender inguinal nodes

c. Bilateral enlargement of the popliteal nodes

d. Pelletlike nodes in the supraclavicular region

Question 16The nurse is examining the lymphatic system of a healthy 3-year-old child. Which finding should the nurse expect?

Answers:

a. Excessive swelling of the lymph nodes

b. Presence of palpable lymph nodes

c. No palpable nodes because of the immature immune system of a child

d. Fewer numbers and a smaller size of lymph nodes compared with those of an adult

Question 17During an assessment of an older adult, the nurse should expect to notice which finding as a normal physiologic change associated with the aging process?

Answers:

a. Hormonal changes causing vasodilation and a resulting drop in blood pressure

b. Progressive atrophy of the intramuscular calf veins, causing venous insufficiency

c. Peripheral blood vessels growing more rigid with age, producing a rise in systolic blood pressure

d. Narrowing of the inferior vena cava, causing low blood flow and increases in venous pressure resulting in varicosities

Question 18A 67-year-old patient states that he recently began to have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment. This pain is relieved by sitting for approximately 2 minutes; then he is able to resume his activities. The nurse interprets that this patient is most likely experiencing:

Answers:

a. Claudication.

b. Sore muscles.

c. Muscle cramps.

d. Venous insufficiency.

Question 19A patient has been diagnosed with venous stasis. Which of these findings would the nurse most likely observe?

Answers:

a. Unilateral cool foot

b. Thin, shiny, atrophic skin

c. Pallor of the toes and cyanosis of the nail beds

d. Brownish discoloration to the skin of the lower leg

Question 20The nurse is attempting to assess the femoral pulse in a patient who is obese. Which of these actions would be most appropriate?

Answers:

a. The patient is asked to assume a prone position.

b. The patient is asked to bend his or her knees to the side in a froglike position.

c. The nurse firmly presses against the bone with the patient in a semi-Fowler position.

d. The nurse listens with a stethoscope for pulsations; palpating the pulse in an obese person is extremely difficult.

Question 21When auscultating over a patient’s femoral arteries, the nurse notices the presence of a bruit on the left side. The nurse knows that bruits:

Answers:

a. Are often associated with venous disease.

b. Occur in the presence of lymphadenopathy.

c. In the femoral arteries are caused by hypermetabolic states.

d. Occur with turbulent blood flow, indicating partial occlusion.

Question 22The sac that surrounds and protects the heart is called the:

Answers:

a. Pericardium.

b. Myocardium.

c. Endocardium.

d. Pleural space.

Question 23During an examination of the anterior thorax, the nurse is aware that the trachea bifurcates anteriorly at the:

Answers:

a. Costal angle.

b. Sternal angle.

c. Xiphoid process.

d. Suprasternal notch.

Question 24During an assessment, the nurse knows that expected assessment findings in the normal adult lung include the presence of:

Answers:

a. Adventitious sounds and limited chest expansion.

b. Increased tactile fremitus and dull percussion tones.

c. Muffled voice sounds and symmetric tactile fremitus.

d. Absent voice sounds and hyperresonant percussion tones.

Question 25The primary muscles of respiration include the:

Answers:

a. Diaphragm and intercostals.

b. Sternomastoids and scaleni.

c. Trapezii and rectus abdominis.

d. External obliques and pectoralis major.

NURS3020 Health Assessment

Week 4 Quiz

Question 1The nurse is percussing the seventh right intercostal space at the midclavicular line over the liver. Which sound should the nurse expect to hear?

Answers:

a. Dullness

b. Tympany

c. Resonance

d. Hyperresonance

Question 2Which structure is located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen?

Answers: