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COM590 Strategic Planning Cybersecurity

MIDTERM EXAM

Question 1 Which set of security tenets best represents the information assurance framework?

Question 1 options:

C-I-A triad

None of the above

Confidentiality and integrity

The five pillars

Question 2 During which phase of the COBIT ISS management life cycle do you review how you are going to manage your IT investment such as contracts, service level agreements (SLAs), and new policy ideas?

Question 2 options:

Deliver and Support

Monitor and Evaluate

Acquire and Implement

Plan and Organize

Question 3 Which of the following is considered a how-to document?

Question 3 options:

Guideline

Policy

Standard

Procedure

Question 4 During which phase of the COBIT ISS management life cycle do internal and external audits occur?

Question 4 options:

Acquire and Implement

Monitor and Evaluate

Deliver and Support

Plan and Organize

Question 5 What does COBIT stand for?

Question 5 options:

Common Objects for Information and Technology

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology

Common Objectives for Information and Technology

Control Objects for Information Technology

Question 6 A business __________ emerges when an organization cannot meet its obligation or duty.

Question 6 options:

driver

None of the above

liability

culture

Question 7 Security controls fall into three design types: preventive, detective, and:

Question 7 options:

qualitative.

quantitative.

effective.

corrective.

Question 8 An organization’s security awareness program is an example of which type of security control?

Question 8 options:

Administrative

Detective

Technical

Physical

Question 9 Which of the following is not a generally accepted principle for implementing a security awareness program?

Question 9 options:

Competency should be measured.

Remind employees of risks.

Leaders should provide visible support.

None of the above.

Question 10 The key to __________ is being able to measure compliance against a set of controls.

Question 10 options:

nonrepudiation

security policy

business management

risk exposure

Question 11 Which compliance law concept states that a person of legal age, capable, with the needed facts, and without undue pressure can make an informed judgment?

Question 11 options:

Full disclosure

Limited use of personal data

Informed consent

Public interest

Question 12 Which compliance law concept states that only the data needed for a transaction should be collected?

Question 12 options:

Public interest

Limited use of personal data

Opt-in/opt-out

Full disclosure

Question 13 Of the following compliance laws, which focuses most heavily on personal privacy?

Question 13 options:

HIPAA

GLBA

SOX

FISMA

Question 14 To which sector does the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act apply primarily?

Question 14 options:

Medical

None of the above

Financial

Communications

Question 15 To which sector does HIPAA apply primarily?

Question 15 options:

Medical

Financial

None of the above

Communications

Question 16 Within the User Domain, some of the ways in which risk can be mitigated include awareness, enforcement, and:

Question 16 options:

people.

user access.

reward.

process.

Question 17 In which domain is virtual private networking a security control?

Question 17 options:

Remote Access Domain

WAN Domain

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Question 18 Which of the following is not true of segmented networks?

Question 18 options:

A flat network has more controls than a segmented network for limiting traffic.

Switches, routers, internal firewalls, and other devices restrict segmented network traffic.

Network segmentation limits what and how computers are able to talk to each other.

By limiting certain types of traffic to a group of computers, you are eliminating a number of threats.

Question 19 Web graffiti as a result of Web site defacement is an issue primarily in which IT domain?

Question 19 options:

LAN-to-WAN

Workstation

LAN

User

Question 20 How is risk reduced in the LAN-to-WAN Domain?

Question 20 options:

Setting up a DMZ

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

Reviewing logs

Question 21 In an organization, which of the following roles is accountable for approving security policy implementation?

Question 21 options:

Compliance officer

Executive management

Auditor

Information security office (ISO)

Question 22 Successful security policy implementation depends on the correct alignment of people, processes, and __________.

Question 22 options:

time

motivation

money

technology

Question 23 In an organization, which of the following roles is accountable for monitoring adherence to laws and regulations?

Question 23 options:

Information security office (ISO)

Compliance officer

Data owner

Data custodian

Question 24 A primary reason why security policies often fail is __________.

Question 24 options:

poor planning

lack of complexity

insufficient leadership support

not enough money

Question 25 Which personality type tends to be associated with good leaders?

Question 25 options:

Attacker

Achiever

Pleaser

Analytical

Question 26 Which of the following is not a control area of ISO/IEC 27002, “Information Technology–Security Techniques–Code of Practice for Information Security Management”?

Question 26 options:

Risk assessment and treatment

Asset management

Audit and accountability

Security policy

Question 27 Your organization was awarded a U.S. government contract. You need to ensure your organization adheres to an acceptable IT security framework. Which of the following is the best choice?

Question 27 options:

None of the above

COBIT

COSO

NIST SP 800-53

Question 28 Which of the following is one of the prime objectives of an information security program?

Question 28 options:

Keep policies updated

Protect information

None of the above

Learn about compliance

Question 29 What does an IT security policy framework resemble?

Question 29 options:

List

Narrative document

Cycle diagram

Hierarchy or tree

Question 30 Which act was passed in the wake of the collapse of Enron, Arthur Andersen, WorldCom, and several other large firms?

Question 30 options:

SOX

FISMA

CIPA

FERPA

Question 31 Which of the following is generally not an objective of a security policy change board?

Question 31 options:

Make and publish approved changes to policies

Assess policies and recommend changes

Review requested changes to the policy framework

Coordinate requests for changes

Question 32 Virus removal and closing a firewall port are examples of which type of security control?

Question 32 options:

Preventive

Recovery

Detective or response

Corrective

Question 33 When publishing an internal security policy or standard, which role or department usually gives final approval?

Question 33 options:

Legal

Human Resources

Audit and Compliance Manager

Senior Executive

Question 34 Pre-employment screening of personnel and a change management process are examples of which type of security control?

Question 34 options:

Administrative

Physical security

None of the above

Technical security

Question 35 What is the primary role of a security policy evangelist?

Question 35 options:

Monitor user adherence to security policies

Conduct security policy awareness training

Review student participation in security policy awareness training

Promote security policy awareness and address user questions

Question 36 Who has a highly restricted role and grants access rights?

Question 36 options:

None of the above

Data security administrator

Data administrator

CISO

Question 37 Which security policy framework, developed by CERT, focuses on information security assessment and planning?

Question 37 options:

COSO

COBIT

ITIL

OCTAVE

Question 38 Which IT framework extends the COBIT framework and is a comprehensive risk management approach?

Question 38 options:

ISO 27002

ISACA Risk IT framework

COSO

ITIL

Question 39 Who is responsible for executing policies and procedures, such as backup and versioning?

Question 39 options:

Data administrator

CISO

Data custodian

Data steward

Question 40 A fundamental component of internal control for high-risk transactions is:

Question 40 options:

following best practices.

data duplication.

a defense in depth.

a separation of duties.

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